Originally Posted by Galt
Again, not at all. If she can demonstrate that her efforts contributed to the creation of assets remaining in the ownership of the husband, then she should be awarded an appropriate amount of said assets as supported by the evidence.
I have a scenario for you and I would like your honest opinion on whether the wife in this situation is entitled to anything, because I am quite confused with what you're saying...
Husband goes to work out of town for 3 months and makes about $50,000 for the work. He get's home and bolts the minute he get's home, files for divorce and claims the full $50,000 because he went out of town and made that money. Do you think the wife is entitled to half of that money? While he was out of town, she worked her normal full time job and cared for the children full time.