to conflate being a woman in the founding era with being a slave is truly misguided. some white women do it.
a woman was represented by elected officials. no, they were represented by their husband / family. In fact, it's documented that many well to do women did not care about getting the vote because they could influence through their families.
however, slaves offiucially were not because they were considered the legal property of their owners. i do hope that you find that offensive.
it is important to note that voting rights have always been state regulated. The constitution did not disenfranchise any group from voting. i think that is wrong.
generally, in the founding era women could vote if they were "independent". where do get that?
the concept was that a person who was dependent on another could not vote independently for the greater good of society. For example, most women were housewives. Yes, many also worked at the family business whether it be a farm or a merchant business. But they depended upon their husband, unlike today where many married women have their own independent careers. Thus, a wife in the founding era would have been likely to vote the way her husband told her to because she depended on him for housing and food for her and her children. women could not vote for federal elections and most state elections before 1920. Some states out west offered the right to vote in the 19th century because they were desperate for women to move there.
but a single adult woman who was independent could vote in many places. before 1920? Before the civil war? What state would that be? I know that wyoming had its own "ladies night" but you since you speak more authoritatively then perhaps you could name a few states where women could vote before 1920 ......... Before all women could vote in federal elections.
she had legitimate interest in the good of society which would then be good for her. oh, really now.
note also that those who were on government handouts or who were government employees were not allowed to vote in many places at that time,are equating those who work for the government with those who are drawing welfare payments?
specifically because they could not be expected to vote in the best interests of the general population over their own personal interests. you may want to consider how government employees look out for the rest of us: https://www.nbcnews.com/politics/202...676?yptr=yahoo
same thing with slaves, who would only be expected to vote as they were told to (and probably wouldn't actually vote but would have their owners enter votes for them). i'm sure the plantation ballot box was as rigorously guarded as those ballot boxes that putin uses in his elections.
one would also expect that wives had sway over their husbands and could influence their votes, whereas slaves would have zero sway over owners' votes.